AZGrizFan wrote:Because my earnings pay interest on a loan, which then becomes earnings to the holder of the note. We are two separate entities. In a business's case, the earnings are earned by the shareholders and declared by the BOD and split after taxes are paid (on those earnings). Dividends are what is left AFTER taxes on those earnings have already been paid. True, there's usually a middle man (or group) making the dividends declaration decision, but the earnings belong to the shareholders, as owners, and have already been taxed once.danefan wrote:
Why is it weak?
Interest is paid with earnings that have already been taxed.
So you are differentiating between interest being paid with"pre-tax" money and dividends being paid with "after tax" money. Very good point and one I can concede.GannonFan wrote:I do kinda agree with AZ on this one - I'm a fan of good analogies and that just wasn't a good one. I can understand his argument with the taxing of dividends. If you use a family as an analogy for that one, it would be like taxing me for my income I bring in, then taxing my wife on the same income when I put the income in a shared bank account. Heck, you could even tax my kids then, each in turn, since they would have access to the income as well.danefan wrote:
Why is it weak?
Interest is paid with earnings that have already been taxed.
Your analogy kinda implies that all money is taxed several times over, indefinitely, which is true. But that's a silly point - I get taxed on my income, and then I get taxed when I spend that income on a good or service I purchase (sales tax), and then that money is taxed again when the place I bought from pays it's employees, and so on. But that's just obvious and not the same as taxing each person down the line for sharing the profit from a singular event.
I still have the same conceptual problem though. If I invest in J&J, I expect to make money one of two ways (1) appreciation in my ownership interest and (2) dividend income. I do this, like most people to replace or supplement my salary. I do not consider either of those recognized incomes any different than my salary.
Maybe the answer really is that the corporation should get a deduction for dividends paid?





