And I have no doubt that if I were to make an effort to look it up I'd find that they have at least as much access to health care as they did then.
I'll concede on that one because I did make an effort to look it up and I do have doubt as to being able to find that. Part of it is the fact that, when you think about it, "access to health care" is hard to measure. If one defines it as having health insurance, a higher percentage of people in the United States under 65 were without health care in 2007 than in 1978 (http://www.cdc.gov/nchs/data/nhsr/nhsr017.pdf" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;, Figure 1). That doesn't mean fewer were without health insurance overall because there are people over 65 and over to consider. The percentage of people 65 and over increased over time and they are covered by Medicaid. But it introduces doubt...at least in terms of health insurance.Well go ahead and look it up then. Support your opinion with facts, otherwise it's just opinion.
Also, if you look at having health insurance as the measure of access, it depends on what part of the "glory days" you look at. I identified the perceived "glory days" of the middle class as 1950 through the mid 1970s. Legislation establishing Medicare and Medicaid was passed in 1965.
There's also the question of whether or not having health insurance equates to "access to health care." So I concede that this is not an easy one that I have no doubt about.
However, the same standard should be applied to anyone who wishes to claim the contrary.








