You haven't answered my question yet, so I will pose it again. Why shouldn't all districts be required for preclearance? Wouldn't that assure the there is no voter discrimination, and be fair and equitable?dbackjon wrote:tribe_pride wrote:
Can I ask you what specifically you found wrong with this ruling and not conclusions on how you think things will result from the ruling?
The only part that was ruled unconstitutional is the part that said a formula of how things were in the early 1970s must be used to determine which jurisdictions need DOJ approval.
Remember that the Constitution reserves the right to regulate an election to the States so for the Federal government to discriminate against only certain limited states, there is a high burden it needs to prove.
See further post with examples of why it is still needed. Does it need updating? Probably. But the burden should be on the offending jurisdictions to prove that they have reformed. Which many will fail
I'm guessing that you feel this should only be broadly applied to red states, because no Democrat can be a racist.


