This past Spring I let someone use my lawnmower to mow my lawn and paid them for the mowing. Does that mean that under this philosophy my lawnmower is property that should be possessed by the community? Or can I keep my lawnmower because it was just one person so it wasn't used "collectively?" But what if I let more than one person do that?To put it metaphorically, if I have a hammer and I use it for myself, it is a possession; if i pay you to use my hammer to make items for me to sell while giving you only a small cut for your labor, it's property, which most likely will lead to exploitation. When a marxist or an anarchist says they want to abolish private property, they don't want to take all of your stuff away, they just want to take the stuff that's used collectively, like the factories, etc and put in them in the possession of the community to maximize the profits the worker can earn. In said establishment, you can keep your house, your nice car, your summer home, etc, but you can't use your factory to exploit people. The definition of exploitation is rather broad, and I could get into it, but I think it's best summarized by the labor theory of value.
I'll admit that I don't know what the labor theory of value is. I could Google it and pretend I already knew. But I won't. Because I already know what the value of labor is.
It's value, like anything else, is determined by how much someone else is voluntarily willing to pay for it. If what you offer is something in short supply you can command more compensation. If you're a good Engineer right now, for instance, you don't have to worry about being paid minimum wage. Good Engineers are in demand because the demand exceeds the supply. But if you have no skills then practically anybody else can do what you can do. And that sets the value of your "labor."



