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According to this Anglican priest, he was probably gay. Not that there's anything wrong with that.

http://www.theguardian.com/commentisfre ... y-probably" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;

What stupid "scholarship." This is what happens when a pinhead with no knowledge or understanding of the source language starts talking out his or her ass.

The Greek word used to describe the relationship between Jesus and John is "agape." This refers to a spiritual, non-sexual love. Indeed, the word is used throughout the Gospels to refer to the relationship between many people, including Jesus and John.

The Greek word which would be used for a sexual love is "eros." That word is never used to describe the relationship between Jesus and John.

JoltinJoe wrote:What stupid "scholarship."

The Greek word used to describe the relationship between Jesus and John is "agape." This refers to a spiritual, non-sexual love. Indeed, the word is used throughout the Gospels to refer to the relationship between many people, including Jesus and John.

The Greek word which would be used for a sexual love is "eros." That word is never used to describe the relationship between Jesus and John.

kalm wrote:

JoltinJoe wrote:What stupid "scholarship."

The Greek word used to describe the relationship between Jesus and John is "agape." This refers to a spiritual, non-sexual love. Indeed, the word is used throughout the Gospels to refer to the relationship between many people, including Jesus and John.

The Greek word which would be used for a sexual love is "eros." That word is never used to describe the relationship between Jesus and John.

Scribes probably changed it. They changed most of the Bible at one time or another.

JoltinJoe wrote:What stupid "scholarship." This is what happens when a pinhead with no knowledge or understanding of the source language starts talking out his or her ass.

The Greek word used to describe the relationship between Jesus and John is "agape." This refers to a spiritual, non-sexual love. Indeed, the word is used throughout the Gospels to refer to the relationship between many people, including Jesus and John.

The Greek word which would be used for a sexual love is "eros." That word is never used to describe the relationship between Jesus and John.

That's understandable. But hey, can you be sure about that? Do we have to revisit how Mary isn't referred to as "bethulah, " the Hebrew term for virgin, but instead as "almah" which just means a young, unmarried woman. Errors in translation occurred from Hebrew to Greek.

Couldn't this have been posted in the other thread?